by tigerbob on Sun Jul 20, 2014 1:04 pm
I don't know if this is right but I think i saw it explained somewhere like this.
It's the odds of how many troops you will get next turn for cashing.
You have 3 cards. There are 4 ways to cash, 3 green, 3 blue, 3 red or 1 of each. there are 6 ways to NOT cash, 2green1blue, 2green1red, 2blue1green, 2blue1red, 2red1green, 2red1blue. Your odd of cashing are 4/10 or .4. Multiplied by the value of the next cash. 40x.4=16. The .1 is the odds of you having the tert that corresponds with the card you are cashing for 2 bonus troops. I didn't do the numbers but I think .1 the function of the number of terts/cards avail and the number of cards/terts you hold.
I'm not a math guy but I did stay at a motel 6 last night.
edit: and I'm not sure about the .1 thing. Blue's number is 47.5. Which would mean on average he would gain and additional 7.5 for bonus terts but with only cashing 3 cards the max would seem to be 6. I can't quite figure how the average would be higher than the max possible.
edit2: let me dig myself a little deeper into this hole. now i'm not sure about the first part. I'm not sure how pinks number would be 15 instead of 16.